Given that the British Prime Minister has apologised for the Indian people killed in the Amritsar massacre, does the Indian Prime Minister now intend to apologise for the three British people killed in the days before the massacre?
The two occurrences are inter-related, so an Indian apology would bring "closure" to the whole incident.
Or were the British people just fair game?
The two occurrences are inter-related, so an Indian apology would bring "closure" to the whole incident.
Or were the British people just fair game?
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